Monday, September 1, 2014

The error is so obvious but yet the priests with whom I have been discussing this issue will not admit what is obvious.Why ?

The priest has sent me material which shows that St.Thomas Aquinas says all need the baptism of water for salvation.This contradicts the Catechism of the Catholic Church which says God is not limited to the Sacraments.St. Thomas Aquinas is saying God is limited to the Sacrament of Baptism for salvation.It is there is black and white and yet he is denying it. Why ?
 
Why must he believe that 'God is not limited to Sacaraments' (CCC 1257), in other words, a non Catholic can be saved without the baptism of water.How can the Catechism state that God is not limited to the Sacraments when we do not know of any one on earth who is an exception?

1257 The Lord himself affirms that Baptism is necessary for salvation. He also commands his disciples to proclaim the Gospel to all nations and to baptize them. Baptism is necessary for salvation for those to whom the Gospel has been proclaimed and who have had the possibility of asking for this sacrament. The Church does not know of any means other than Baptism that assures entry into eternal beatitude; this is why she takes care not to neglect the mission she has received from the Lord to see that all who can be baptized are "reborn of water and the Spirit." God has bound salvation to the sacrament of Baptism, but he himself is not bound by his sacraments.-Catechism of the Catholic Church
 
Also like St.Thomas Aquinas none of the saints including St. Augustine state that there are 'exceptional cases' known to us, of persons who are saved allegedly without the baptism of water.
None of the popes state that those who are saved with the baptism of water or in invincible ignorance are personally known to us, or that there exists such a case in our reality.
If there are saints or martryrs who have died without the baptism of water they are in Heaven. So how can it be said that they are exceptions in 2014 to all needing the baptism of water for salvation in 2014.
 
Why does the Catechism mention this irrationality i.e why does it infer that there are known exceptions to all needing the baptism of water for salvation, when Vatican Council II does not make this claim in any of its texts.
Lumen Gentium 16 mentions a person who can be saved in invincible ignorance.However it does not state this case can be known to us in the present times.It does not state that this case  is an exception to all needing the baptism of water for salvation. We have to accept it as only a statement of a hypothetical case.

 A probability is not a known exception. Since the probability is known only to God as reality.
If it is a hypothethical case it cannot be an exception to 'God has bound salvation to the Sacrament'(CCC 1257).So why does the Catechism state, 'God is not limited to the Sacraments'. This is non traditional, irrational and heretical. It contradicts the dogma extra ecclesiam nulla salus and it changes the Nicene Creed. It contradicts the Athanasius Creed which says outside the Church there is no salvation.
The error is so obvious but yet the priests with whom I have been discussing this issue will not admit what is obvious.Why ?-Lionel Andrades



And if you said that the Catechism of the Catholic Church and Vatican Council II are Feeneyite could you still be a priest in good standing?

http://eucharistandmission.blogspot.it/2014/08/and-if-you-said-that-catechism-of.html


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